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You rarely, if ever, include the "how" or "why" in your posts - just declarations of your own opinions.
How can I comprehend any of your claims when they so often contradict each other?
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Person leaves car unlocked. Another person opens unlocked door without permission & steals a gps unit. Was that a burglary? What force was used?
"You have not converted a man because you have silenced him." -- John Morley
"I just helped your mother kill someone. That 'old lady' enough for you?" -- Tara Knowles |
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| 06-15-2012, 10:38 AM | |
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I am not focusing on weapons but I am continually pointing out that using the threat of violence while in the commission of a crime is what constitutes a violent crime. It seems the only thing you are doing is trying to confuse the issue by claiming there is some kind of "controversy" regarding what is and is not a non-violent crime but have failed to provide any actual support for this belief of yours.
Fake weapon or not, if the threat of force is used, and reasonable persons believe that they are being threatened with a real weapon, then it clearly is a threat of violence. The robber is counting on the fact that people think the weapon is real, correct? However, I have heard of these types of cases getting better plea deals or lesser sentencing by a jury precisely because the weapon was fake which demonstrated the lack of real intent to hurt people. This is the whole point that violent crimes are and should be treated more harshly by society. A check hanger that swindles $100,000 from a bank gets a lower sentence than an armed robber than get's away with $5,000. Science is much more than a body of knowledge. It is a way of thinking. This is central to its success. Science invites us to let the facts in, even when they don’t conform to our preconceptions.
~ Carl Sagan |
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Lastly, you invoked potential of violence as justification for "violent" classification. Fine. The same with burglary. If people are inside or people come home burglary has a potential of becoming violent. So by your own argument it should be classified as violent. The fact that you would then simply change its name is somewhat besides the point. Here you classify burglary becoming robbery based on the use of force/violence as "simply changing its name". Yet, later, you agree that it is, in fact, a totally different crime. So what substantiation have you provided for your claim that burglary should be considered a violent crime? The fact that burglary can *become* robbery (a totally different crime) doesn't support your claim that mere burglary itself is a violent crime. Again, shoplifting can *become* assault if the thief is confronted & responds violently. Does that mean shoplifting should be considered a violent crime?
Yes, because the problem with your statement was its form and not its content. So, yes, I have trouble "comprehending" your contradictory nonsense.
![]() If you think it's "trollish" then have the balls to mod alert it. If not, keep your ad hominems to yourself.
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And at this point i am not even sure what we are discussing. That is how ollow your nitpicking is. I am saying drug dealing should be classifies as a violent crime. Yet gave no input on that.
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Should shoplifting be considered a violent crime? Isn't that just another form of "burglary"? What about drug use? After all, isn't there a "real potential of violence" from someone hopped up on meth? (I believe I've asked the same questions before. I expect to get the same non-answers.)
How crazy... ![]()
And I'm sorry to have to tell you that there's no "perhaps" involved. Go start your own private debate forum and you can exclude any & everyone who dares to disagree with your opinions.
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Your opinions literally mean nothing to me. But when you choose to repeatedly post them on a public debate forum, they are -- gasp! -- open to criticism. Shocking news, I'm sure... |
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Could you really not figure that out for yourself? Your silly whining is not debate. From outset I said drug dealing should considered violent crime because of the real potential for violence. You never took the time to debate that like an adult.
![]() But most of them time I did answer you, THEN I told you to butt out. Now, butt out. And that is what a perhaps is. But ok, say rules says you are entitled to participate. So what? I need not welcome your participation when act immature. Last edited by TRNT; 06-15-2012 at 06:43 PM.. Reason: Automerged Doublepost |
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At any rate, the two are different. But even so, burglary has a real potential for violence. If you think that is the same as threat of violence, then it seems you are arguing that burglary should be classified as violent crime. Soooo delicious. |
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How am I supposed to debate like an adult when you refuse to answer questions like an adult?
Here's a smattering of the questions that you have so far refused to address: According to such a system of classification, wouldn't *every* crime have the potential to turn violent & therefore be labeled as a "violent" crime?
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An analogy for the sake of example: That's essentially what has transpired over the last page or so...
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Threat of force can be present without a weapon, no one has said otherwise. I'm only pointing out how your scenario, the one YOU chose to present way back at the beginning of this derailed circus you created, was that the burglar had a weapon and USED It when the owners came home. By definition that becomes a robbery, precisely because of the threat of force, which in this case happened to be a weapon.
I'll remind you since you aren't even sure, you said, "I might agree that drug using is non-violent but drug dealing? Would burglary be considered non-violent too?" I answered in the affirmative that non-violent crimes do include burglary because of the way the law defines burglary. You then came back and mentioned there is some controversy regarding whether burglary is a non-violent crime or not and I told you I was unaware of any such controversy. You still have not presented any links or substantiation that there is any such controversy except your head.
The next link was from a law office that said, and then continues... If you have a problem where the law makes a distinction between the two, then you should be able to verbalize exactly why yet still have not done so in spite criticizing those of use that understand and agree with the legal distinction.
The post you were responding to explained very clearly that violence is a distinguishing FACTOR in crimes because we as a society (and most normal people) agree that violence is an important factor in how we decide the punishment. Is this something you disagree with? You appear to be arguing for the sake of arguing. You haven't made a point or supported your opinion in any way and have basically. My interpretation of your position is that you believe ALL drug dealing crimes should be considered violent, regardless of their individual situation. I am pointing out that the law looks at the actual specific incident so as not to be arbitrary. |
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About you acting like an adult thing.......the odds are against that. Sorry. Why don't you just butt out?
1. We cut it off where we want to cut it off. Remember "reasonable doubt"? Could you not have figured this out for yourself, even after I had already answered it? 2. This too has been answered. You are now resorting to outright lies. 3. Again already answered. But since it is short I repeat: residents could come home while criminals are there. 4. "Utter bullshit." you are stalling....hoping for a miracle. 5. I do not recall the context of this. If I ignored it, it is probabely because it is "utter bullshit." But maybe I did answer and you are just lying. 6. Because burglary has real and significant potential for violence. But where this started was whether or not drug dealing is a violent crime. So I had already answered that too. More lies from you. 7. No. That one was already answered too. 8. Already answered. The answer is "no." I also remarked that that was a good point. You have the immature habit of claiming a question has not benn answered when you do not like the answer.
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