I think I misspoke a bit. I will explain later. But I have otherwise explained my position to the best of ability and I think I have done an adequate job. It seems you disagree. I am sorry but I cannot explain any better.
You have not explained a single thing. You've merely posted an assertion. Well, maybe that's not fair. You've posted statements and comments that would imply that you believe something or that you believe a particular position has merit. When asked to elaborate and provide the reasoning, you attempt to change the subject or otherwise deflect.
Here is where I think I misspoke: I did not mean that all four cases are either redistribution or none is. I think in general changes in taxes -- increase or decrease -- are not redistribution of wealth. (You?)
However, when a person (almost always those on the right) claims increase on taxes on the super rich is redistribution of wealth, I would like to ask them about the opposite, that is, decrease of taxes on the say second lowest bracket. Or I would like to ask them about reducing the highest tax bracket wrt to redistribution of wealth.
An irrelevant question. Only in the instance where there is a tax increase is there or could there be a redistribution of wealth as it is only in the case of a tax increase that the government is taking more to spend somewhere else. You cannot distribute or redistribute that was is not yours or was never going to be yours in the firs place.
The thought goes like this: say the top 2% pay 50% of fed income tax and the other 98% the other 50%. Say we change the tax rate in any fashion so that the distribution of burden between these two groups is changed. When the change is disadvantageous to the super rich, some (usually in the right, in my experience) call that redistribution of wealth.
I think you're either misrepresenting these phantom right-wingers or do don't understand their point. The issue most generally is that when you propose to tax actual taxpayers (income taxpayers, that is) more, the increase is always rationalized by noting the need to generate more revenue to pay for more spending. I've not actually seen this issue discussed as a shift in burden. Increasing taxes on the rich or those who actually pay the tax is always a redistribution. A decrease in taxes cannot be or ever be a redistribution.
If you disagree with my reasoning, so be it.
But you have not presented any reasoning at all. No reasoning at all which would explain why or how a reduction in tax rates could be construed as redistribution.
If you think I provided no reasoning, I am sorry that I have not been able to explain this any clearer.
Any explanation would be helpful. Identifying a specific scenario along with an implication of something is not reasoning. It's akin to me simply asking, "The sun always rises in the East?" And whereupon I would be asked to provide any reasoning for suggesting that the sun would rise in any other way than in the East, I simply state, "well, when someone says the sun always rises in the East, I want to ask them if the converse could be true."
That is not reasoning. It's simply asking the question in the converse for the sake of asking the question.
Robin Hood stole from the rich and redistributed it to the poor. If Robin Hood left people with their money, then no redistribution occurred. Correct or incorrect?
It has nothing to do with left or right of the political aisle. If you tax someone to pay for programs where others get that money, then it is redistribution. This terminology is self-evident, quit trying to make this about political ideology..
So reduction of the second lowest tax bracket rate "redistribution of wealth" or not?
Let's try this again. Care to respond, correct or incorrect?
Science is much more than a body of knowledge. It is a way of thinking. This is central to its success. Science invites us to let the facts in, even when they don’t conform to our preconceptions.
~ Carl Sagan
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